Then why did the Greek Catholic Church believe in Purgatory before Vatican II? I remember reading in an old catechism "Our Heavenly Bread" that the Greek Catholics believe in purgatory as well as indulgences.
Who ever said we never believed in the concept of "purgatory"?
In the Catholic understanding, only two points are necessary dogma concerning "purgatory": 1) There is a place of transition/transformation for those en-route to Heaven, and 2) prayer is efficacious for the dead who are in this state.
The Eastern Orthodox and Eastern Catholic Churches agree with the Latin Church fully on both of these points. In practice, we routinely celebrate Divine Liturgies for the dead, and offer numerous prayers on their behalf. We would not do so if we did not agree with the above two dogmatic points. The Union of Brest (which was pre-vatican 2) says we don't have to debate with the Roman Church concerning differences over "Purgatory". The catechism you refer to (if it was Eastern Catholic in origin) was probably written by the same people who removed our Iconostases and inserted stations of the cross in our churches in an attempt to be more "Catholic".
You must be careful of what is happening to the Eastren Rites since the council. Many are being infiltrated by pro- Orthodox fanatics who want to tear them away from the true Church of Rome.
Uh, if my priest or I wanted to leave the Catholic Church we would just join the Ukrainian Orthodox two blocks down the road.
Could you provide sources to prove your theory?
A Catholic of any rite must submit to the supreme jurisdiction and authority of the Roman Pontiff.
Uh, I dont?!? That's news to me!
And I do not belong to any "rite" - neither do you. I belong to the Catholic Church (the UGCC to be specific).
They are not permitted to exist as a separate autonomous body with "ties" to the Holy See.
Our hierarchy is in full communion with the Vicar of Christ and accept his universal jurisdiction. We are autonomous though. We elect our own bishops and patriarchs.
When an Eastern Catholic Patriarch is elected, the first thing he dose is visits the Pope and announces that he and his Church (whether it be Melkite, Coptic, Syriac or Chaeldean) are in full communion with him.
What does "in communion with" imply anyway? All being in communion (In Orthodoxy) means is that one Church recognizes another as legitimate Church and the faithful of that Church may Commune in the other if they wish.
That is our understanding also. My Church recognizes the Melkite Greek-Catholic Church to be a true particular Church of the Catholic Church. Therefore I can take communion at a Melkite parish. My Church also recognizes the Roman Catholic Church to be a true particular Church of the Catholic Church (surprise, surprise) so I can take communion at a Roman mass.
Is that the kind of relationship the Eastern Churches want with Rome, like Constantinople with Antioch?
The Patriarch of Constantinople dose not claim to have universal jurisdiction and he dose not claim to be the Vicar of Christ. The Church of Antioch agrees with the Patriarch of Constantinople on these two points.
The Pope of Rome claims to have universal jurisdiction and claims to be the Vicar of Christ. The Eastern Catholic Churches (whether they be Ukrainian, Syro-Malabar, Chaldean, Coptic, Syriac, Melkite, Ruthenian, Hungarian, Slovakian, Ethiopian, or any of the others) agree with him and believe him on these two points.