atlantis587
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I'm sorry, fisheaters. I'm afraid I can't do that.
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« Reply #10 on: March 02, 2012, 01:50:AM » |
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I wonder in what language he spoke to the Father when he prayed.
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I'm in space.
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AlphaOmega
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« Reply #11 on: March 02, 2012, 08:29:AM » |
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Of course God knows all languages, but the question of which languages He actually used during His time on earth is interesting. As pointed out by Raskolnikov, he probably spoke Greek with the Romans, which was the lingua franca for that part of the world at that time (this is why the New Testament was written in Greek and why the Gospels refer back to a Greek translation of the Old Testament -- the Septuagint -- instead of the Hebrew original). I think it's unlikely Christ would have needed to use much Latin. My guess is the centurion would have addressed him in Greek or Aramaic.
I've never asked myself what language Christ used when praying to the Father. Aramaic was used by the Jews at that time for everyday communication, but Hebrew was still their sacred language. Maybe He prayed in Hebrew?
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Tim
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« Reply #12 on: March 02, 2012, 08:45:AM » |
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Slightly off, but, I've heard the three languages that are holy (common parlance only) are Hebrew, Greek, and Latin, because they were in the titulus over Jesus Christ at his Crucifixation.
tim
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Josué
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St.Casimir pray for us.
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« Reply #13 on: March 02, 2012, 09:15:AM » |
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I wonder in what language he spoke to the Father when he prayed. I'll ask him if I get to heaven before you do d:
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Introibo ad altare Dei, ad Deum qui lætificat iuventutem meam.
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Walty
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« Reply #14 on: March 02, 2012, 09:37:AM » |
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But then again, on the basis of his divine omniscience as the Word of God, Jesus probably knew every human language.
Yes, He certainly did, if we are to trust Thomas on the matter.
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The Church is intolerant in principle because she believes; she is tolerant in practice because she loves. The enemies of the Church are tolerant in principle because they do not believe; they are intolerant in practice because they do not love. Timorem Domini docebo vos.
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Walty
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« Reply #15 on: March 02, 2012, 09:37:AM » |
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God knows all languages.
Even the ones Rosarium knows? LOL
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The Church is intolerant in principle because she believes; she is tolerant in practice because she loves. The enemies of the Church are tolerant in principle because they do not believe; they are intolerant in practice because they do not love. Timorem Domini docebo vos.
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Walty
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« Reply #16 on: March 02, 2012, 09:38:AM » |
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I wonder in what language he spoke to the Father when he prayed. The Tongue of the Angels?
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The Church is intolerant in principle because she believes; she is tolerant in practice because she loves. The enemies of the Church are tolerant in principle because they do not believe; they are intolerant in practice because they do not love. Timorem Domini docebo vos.
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Vincentius
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« Reply #17 on: March 02, 2012, 10:38:AM » |
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The Romans in Palestine spoke Latin and, as conquerors, required everyone to speak it. They would never stoop down to learn the language of the conquered, which would be something demeaning for them. Some of the more educated Romans spoke Greek but I doubt they were scholars. The Jews spoke Aramaic and I would think only the educated ones spoke, wrote and read in Hebrew. Jesus of course spoke Latin and Aramaic, as well as Hebrew when he preached in the Temple.
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« Last Edit: March 02, 2012, 10:43:AM by Vincentius »
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http://www.alcazar.netAnything we do without offering it to God, is wasted.” -- St. John Vianney, The Curé of Ars When next you hear some attack called an idle paradox, Ask after the dox. Pursue the dox; persecute the dox. In short ask the dox whether it is orthodox. ---G.K. Chesterton, Daily News, October 28, 1911 God Himself does not propose to judge a man until he is dead. So why should you? In thee, O Lord, have I hoped, let me never be confounded: deliver me in thy justice. The world was to be saved by the preaching of the Cross and on the Eucharist, and not by human wisdom or eloquence
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Mithrandylan
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Divínum auxílium ✝ maneat semper nobíscum.
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« Reply #18 on: March 02, 2012, 11:13:AM » |
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The Romans in Palestine spoke Latin and, as conquerors, required everyone to speak it. They would never stoop down to learn the language of the conquered, which would be something demeaning for them. Some of the more educated Romans spoke Greek but I doubt they were scholars. The Jews spoke Aramaic and I would think only the educated ones spoke, wrote and read in Hebrew. Jesus of course spoke Latin and Aramaic, as well as Hebrew when he preached in the Temple.
Is that right? I learned that contrary to many (most) conquering forces, the Romans actually didn't impose their language on the conquered.
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newyorkcatholic
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terrena despicere
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« Reply #19 on: March 02, 2012, 11:20:AM » |
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I wonder in what language he spoke to the Father when he prayed. The Tongue of the Angels? Did He use any language at all, even that of the Angels? He used human languages for our benefit of course, as is recorded in the Scriptures, but fundamentally He is God and consubstantial with the Father whom He is praying to ... so I'd think no language at all. Language is used to communicate between "others" but the Father and the Son are not "other". I don't know what a proper term would be btw, so I just used the word "other."
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One human thought alone is worth more than the entire world, hence God alone is worthy of it. -- St. John of the Cross
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